You apparently don’t even understand the difference between morality and ethics. Slavery was moral within systems that allowed/perpetuated it. Slavery was a regulated practice under christian states, for instance, where treatment of slaves was dictated by moral decrees of the church. The ETHICS of slavery has not changed, but humanity’s MORAL understanding of it has. Just as the MORALs of capitalist societies favour rich people and provide a different justice system for them, or the morality of patriarchal societies favour men. The ETHICS of justice are very different than the MORALs of justice. The ETHICS of humanist discourses (through the enlightenment era) were why feminism and anti-slavery/social rights movements were able to flourish in the first place, despite the overwhelming MORAL systems that defined the oppression of the eras that came before (and continue to persist). Ethics are dependent on philosophy, which can, and does, have roots in human moral understandings of the world, and not all ethical models agree on the scope of ethics, but ethical models are based on logic, not feeling (as much as human cognition allows, anyways). The implementation of emergent ethics and morality into justice system apparatus’ is the process through which societies regulate what they consider as morally good. Women’s suffrage, for instance, was a battle that was fought using ETHICAL arguments to recognize women as human to overcome their place within a system of MORALITY that denied women that standing. Just as the MORALITY of spousal rape, or even rape more broadly, has been integrated into the justice system as MORAL wrong because of pressure from feminist scholars, who broadly have used ETHICAL arguments to see such change occur.
That you don’t understand that considering a hierarchy, a governmental system, property rights, etc., as “good” or “bad” is inherently a moral consideration is all the evidence anyone should need to see that you don’t have an even basic grasp on theories of ethics or morality.
You don’t know what any of these terms mean and sound like you watched a video, or listen to the occasional feminist podcast as your entire intelectual education. I thought you were being disingenuous, but it turns out you’re just dumb.
You apparently don’t even understand the difference between morality and ethics. Slavery was moral within systems that allowed/perpetuated it. Slavery was a regulated practice under christian states, for instance, where treatment of slaves was dictated by moral decrees of the church. The ETHICS of slavery has not changed, but humanity’s MORAL understanding of it has.
Slavery was legal, not moral. Just because something is regulated does not mean that it becomes more moral. Morality and ethics can be used interchangeably in most cases. Some philosophers distinguish between the two, saying that morality concerns more with the individual interpretation of morality while ethics deals with the philosophical concept of determining what is right or wrong. However, that does not mean that someone’s subjective perspective of a scenario is determinative or that morality is fixed in time or by social group…
Just as the MORALs of capitalist societies favour rich people and provide a different justice system for them, or the morality of patriarchal societies favour men. The ETHICS of justice are very different than the MORALs of justice. The ETHICS of humanist discourses (through the enlightenment era) were why feminism and anti-slavery/social rights movements were able to flourish in the first place, despite the overwhelming MORAL systems that defined the oppression of the eras that came before (and continue to persist).
Lol… It would still be a semantic dispute, but the word you are looking for is not MORALS, it’s MORES. Morals are un fixed to a certain group or time period and are subject to modern interpretation. Mores are fixed to the time and group of particular people.
The implementation of emergent ethics and morality into justice system apparatus’ is the process through which societies regulate what they consider as morally good.
Lol. Yes because it’s always been “society” who dictates legality… You do realize that legal systems predate democratic societies, right?
Women’s suffrage, for instance, was a battle that was fought using ETHICAL arguments to recognize women as human to overcome their place within a system of MORALITY that denied women that standing. Just as the MORALITY of spousal rape, or even rape more broadly, has been integrated into the justice system as MORAL wrong because of pressure from feminist scholars, who broadly have used ETHICAL arguments to see such change occur.
You really have just invented a revisionist theory based on a semantic dispute…
That you don’t understand that considering a hierarchy, a governmental system, property rights, etc., as “good” or “bad” is inherently a moral consideration is all the evidence anyone should need to see that you don’t have an even basic grasp on theories of ethics or morality.
Lol, who taught you this? It’s like arguing with a chatbot fed solely off of reddit circa 2012.
Morality and ethics can and often are interchangeable, you could make an argument about the difference in a philosophical discussion. However, claiming slavery as a social construct is immoral or unethical or even bad… Is perfectly valid.
You just wasted so much of your own time writing nonsensical slop.
Fucking hell are you ever reaching for relevance. You don’t know what any of the terms your using mean, where they come from, or how they used across different applications.
MORALITY extends from MORES at a societal scale through codifying expected behaviour as moral right. The most basic definition of MORES explicitly references societal societal MORALS. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/mores
As MORES are first described by Sumner, they are explicitly described as societal cultural practices through which a society’s MORALS are codifed customs. While I could pull many excerpts from his writings that substantiate this readily here’s one such quote:
“The case is somewhat different when attempts are made by positive efforts to prevent the operation of bad mores, or to abolish them. The historians have familiarized us with the notion of corrupt or degenerate mores. Such periods as the later Roman empire, the Byzantine empire, the Merovingian kingdom, and the Renaissance offer us examples of evil mores. We need to give more exactitude to this idea. Bad mores are those which are not well fitted to the conditions and needs of the society at the time. But, as we have seen, the mores produce a philosophy of welfare, more or less complete, and they produce taboos which are concentrated inhibitions directed against conduct which the philosophy regards as harmful, or positive injunctions to do what is judged expedient and beneficial. The taboos constitute morality or a moral system which, in higher civilization, restrains passion and appetite, and curbs the will.”
Looking at the MORALITY of age-gap relationships, we can understand that the MORES of how societal cultural expression and legal apparatus’ impact such MORAL considerations.
I guess the entirety of academia must be morons according to you to write entire books and articles about the MORALITY of different political systems.
Entire books written about how the MORALITY of governments evolve, change and are re-interpreted based on contemporary understandings.
If mores produce a philosophy of welfare, how exactly do you suggest that morals are somehow separate from society?
You seem to think that there is some sort of universal moral code. Did you learn that from your cult leader? Or did you read an excerpt on Kant once and decided that was the only ethical model available?
I suggest you sit down before you embarrass yourself much further.
MORALITY extends from MORES at a societal scale through codifying expected behaviour as moral right.
Mores is used to describe the scope of what a particular group of people believe to be moral in a fixed period of time. That does not mean that morality in general is defined by any set of social mores.
I guess the entirety of academia must be morons according to you to write entire books and articles about the MORALITY of different political systems.
Those academics are not judging the morality of different political systems by the political systems own social mores… That would obviously be redundant.
If mores produce a philosophy of welfare, how exactly do you suggest that morals are somehow separate from society?
I never claimed any society was devoid of the concept of morals, just that social mores can be described by people both inside and outside of that particular group as immoral/unethical. Both I and the Quakers contemporary to the time of slavery can both correctly determine that slavery is immoral/unethical.
You seem to think that there is some sort of universal moral code.
Lol, the whole point of the philosophical concept of ethics is that it’s an open debate. If you think something is immoral, then you can make that determination and convince other people to do the same. I would argue that there is no universally moral way to live your life, but in any given society you could argue that certain actions are bad for society or human decency as a whole and should be labeled as immoral.
suggest you sit down before you embarrass yourself much further.
Says the person who claimed slavery wasn’t immoral…
You apparently don’t even understand the difference between morality and ethics. Slavery was moral within systems that allowed/perpetuated it. Slavery was a regulated practice under christian states, for instance, where treatment of slaves was dictated by moral decrees of the church. The ETHICS of slavery has not changed, but humanity’s MORAL understanding of it has. Just as the MORALs of capitalist societies favour rich people and provide a different justice system for them, or the morality of patriarchal societies favour men. The ETHICS of justice are very different than the MORALs of justice. The ETHICS of humanist discourses (through the enlightenment era) were why feminism and anti-slavery/social rights movements were able to flourish in the first place, despite the overwhelming MORAL systems that defined the oppression of the eras that came before (and continue to persist). Ethics are dependent on philosophy, which can, and does, have roots in human moral understandings of the world, and not all ethical models agree on the scope of ethics, but ethical models are based on logic, not feeling (as much as human cognition allows, anyways). The implementation of emergent ethics and morality into justice system apparatus’ is the process through which societies regulate what they consider as morally good. Women’s suffrage, for instance, was a battle that was fought using ETHICAL arguments to recognize women as human to overcome their place within a system of MORALITY that denied women that standing. Just as the MORALITY of spousal rape, or even rape more broadly, has been integrated into the justice system as MORAL wrong because of pressure from feminist scholars, who broadly have used ETHICAL arguments to see such change occur. That you don’t understand that considering a hierarchy, a governmental system, property rights, etc., as “good” or “bad” is inherently a moral consideration is all the evidence anyone should need to see that you don’t have an even basic grasp on theories of ethics or morality. You don’t know what any of these terms mean and sound like you watched a video, or listen to the occasional feminist podcast as your entire intelectual education. I thought you were being disingenuous, but it turns out you’re just dumb.
Slavery was legal, not moral. Just because something is regulated does not mean that it becomes more moral. Morality and ethics can be used interchangeably in most cases. Some philosophers distinguish between the two, saying that morality concerns more with the individual interpretation of morality while ethics deals with the philosophical concept of determining what is right or wrong. However, that does not mean that someone’s subjective perspective of a scenario is determinative or that morality is fixed in time or by social group…
Lol… It would still be a semantic dispute, but the word you are looking for is not MORALS, it’s MORES. Morals are un fixed to a certain group or time period and are subject to modern interpretation. Mores are fixed to the time and group of particular people.
Lol. Yes because it’s always been “society” who dictates legality… You do realize that legal systems predate democratic societies, right?
You really have just invented a revisionist theory based on a semantic dispute…
Lol, who taught you this? It’s like arguing with a chatbot fed solely off of reddit circa 2012.
Morality and ethics can and often are interchangeable, you could make an argument about the difference in a philosophical discussion. However, claiming slavery as a social construct is immoral or unethical or even bad… Is perfectly valid.
You just wasted so much of your own time writing nonsensical slop.
Fucking hell are you ever reaching for relevance. You don’t know what any of the terms your using mean, where they come from, or how they used across different applications. MORALITY extends from MORES at a societal scale through codifying expected behaviour as moral right. The most basic definition of MORES explicitly references societal societal MORALS. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/mores As MORES are first described by Sumner, they are explicitly described as societal cultural practices through which a society’s MORALS are codifed customs. While I could pull many excerpts from his writings that substantiate this readily here’s one such quote: “The case is somewhat different when attempts are made by positive efforts to prevent the operation of bad mores, or to abolish them. The historians have familiarized us with the notion of corrupt or degenerate mores. Such periods as the later Roman empire, the Byzantine empire, the Merovingian kingdom, and the Renaissance offer us examples of evil mores. We need to give more exactitude to this idea. Bad mores are those which are not well fitted to the conditions and needs of the society at the time. But, as we have seen, the mores produce a philosophy of welfare, more or less complete, and they produce taboos which are concentrated inhibitions directed against conduct which the philosophy regards as harmful, or positive injunctions to do what is judged expedient and beneficial. The taboos constitute morality or a moral system which, in higher civilization, restrains passion and appetite, and curbs the will.” Looking at the MORALITY of age-gap relationships, we can understand that the MORES of how societal cultural expression and legal apparatus’ impact such MORAL considerations.
I guess the entirety of academia must be morons according to you to write entire books and articles about the MORALITY of different political systems. Entire books written about how the MORALITY of governments evolve, change and are re-interpreted based on contemporary understandings.
If mores produce a philosophy of welfare, how exactly do you suggest that morals are somehow separate from society? You seem to think that there is some sort of universal moral code. Did you learn that from your cult leader? Or did you read an excerpt on Kant once and decided that was the only ethical model available?
I suggest you sit down before you embarrass yourself much further.
Mores is used to describe the scope of what a particular group of people believe to be moral in a fixed period of time. That does not mean that morality in general is defined by any set of social mores.
Those academics are not judging the morality of different political systems by the political systems own social mores… That would obviously be redundant.
I never claimed any society was devoid of the concept of morals, just that social mores can be described by people both inside and outside of that particular group as immoral/unethical. Both I and the Quakers contemporary to the time of slavery can both correctly determine that slavery is immoral/unethical.
Lol, the whole point of the philosophical concept of ethics is that it’s an open debate. If you think something is immoral, then you can make that determination and convince other people to do the same. I would argue that there is no universally moral way to live your life, but in any given society you could argue that certain actions are bad for society or human decency as a whole and should be labeled as immoral.
Says the person who claimed slavery wasn’t immoral…